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While using a laptop and Bluetooth headset for conference calls, a user notices intermittent sound
issues. The user frequently walks between office rooms during calls, leaving the laptop in place. The
office network uses fiber internet and has two connected APs. What is the MOST likely cause?
A. The number of available APs is inadequate. B. The user is moving in and out of range. C. The APs are not in mesh mode. D. The internet connection is too slow.
Answer: B Explanation: Bluetooth audio issues are typically related to distance and signal strength, not internet connectivity or Wi-Fi access points. Bluetooth devices”especially headsets”generally have a limited effective range of around 10 meters (33 feet) for Class 2 Bluetooth, which is common in consumer laptops and headsets. When the user leaves the room and walks into adjacent offices, they are likely moving beyond the optimal Bluetooth range or passing through walls that weaken the signal. CompTIA A+ highlights that Bluetooth uses low-power radio frequencies easily disrupted by physical obstructions, distance, and interference. Since the laptop remains stationary and the user moves, the headset becomes progressively further from the laptop, causing intermittent audio dropouts, stuttering, or loss of connection. The number of APs (A) is irrelevant because the headset is not using Wi-Fi. Mesh mode (C) applies only to wireless AP-to-AP communication. The internet connection (D) is high-quality fiber and conference calls work fine when stationary, so the issue is not bandwidth or WAN throughput. Thus, the most likely cause is that the user is moving in and out of Bluetooth range.
Question # 2
A company wants to enable access to corporate email on smartphones. Employees must install
software that separates corporate and personal dat
a. Which should the company implement?
A. Encryption B. Network access control C. Mobile device management D. Endpoint protection
Answer: C Explanation:
The requirement to separate corporate and personal data on employee smartphones is a core
function of Mobile Device Management (MDM). CompTIA A+ describes MDM as an enterprise
toolset used to enforce security policies, manage applications, configure email profiles, and separate
work-related data from personal user data. This separation is typically achieved through features
such as containerization, where corporate data is stored in a protected, encrypted workspace that is
isolated from the personal side of the device.
This ensures security, prevents data leakage, and enables IT administrators to remotely wipe
corporate data without affecting the users personal information. MDM solutions are widely used in
BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) environments and corporate-issued devices.
Encryption (A) protects data but does not create separation. Network access control (B) restricts
network access but does not manage mobile apps or data separation. Endpoint protection (D) refers
to antivirus/antimalware, not data partitioning.
Thus, Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the correct solution.
Question # 3
A technician installs an external camera on a user's laptop. When loading meeting software, the
video preview shows a blank screen. What should the technician do next?
A. Select the correct camera source. B. Replace the camera. C. Update the camera software. D. Check the camera cable.
Answer: A Explanation: Most meeting or conferencing applications default to the built-in laptop camera unless manually changed. When an external camera is connected, the software may continue to use the default device, resulting in a blank preview, especially if the internal camera is disabled, covered, or malfunctioning. CompTIA A+ stresses verifying correct device selection when peripherals are installed. Selecting the correct camera source is a quick, non-invasive test that resolves the issue in the majority of cases. The technician should open the applications video settings and choose the external webcam from the camera dropdown menu. Replacing the camera (B) is premature without confirming configuration. Updating software (C) is beneficial but will not resolve a simple input-selection error. Checking the cable (D) is a valid step if the preview still fails after selecting the device. Thus, the correct next step is to select the proper camera source.
Question # 4
Which cloud characteristic allows local folders to contain updates made by users or other devices?
A. Network share B. Synchronization C. Availability D. Metered utilization
Answer: B Explanation: Cloud storage platforms”such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox”use synchronization to ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+ defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration. Synchronization allows users to: Modify files offline and have them sync once online Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices. Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing. Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever changes occur.
Question # 5
Which of the following offers access to business productivity applications for a recurring fee?
A. SaaS B. DaaS C. PaaS D. IaaS
Answer: A Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) provides users access to fully managed applications hosted in the cloud. CompTIA A+ explains that SaaS is subscription-based and typically billed monthly or annually, which aligns perfectly with the phrase œrecurring fee. Business productivity applications”such as Microsoft 365, Google Workspace, Zoom, Slack, and Salesforce”are classic examples of SaaS offerings. SaaS applications run entirely in the providers cloud environment, eliminating the need for installation, maintenance, or management by the customer. This makes SaaS ideal for businesses that need reliable, scalable tools without maintaining their own infrastructure.
DaaS (Desktop as a Service) provides virtual desktops.
PaaS (Platform as a Service) offers a development framework for building applications.
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtual servers, storage, and networking”not end-user
productivity apps.
Thus, SaaS is the correct and only model that matches the description of subscription-based access to
productivity applications.
Question # 6
A software developer wants to test a new application in an environment that limits access to the OS.
Which of the following should the developer implement?
A. Container B. Type 2 hypervisor C. VDI D. Quarantined PC
Answer: A Explanation: A container is the ideal environment for software testing when access to the underlying operating system must be restricted. CompTIA A+ explains that containers isolate applications from the host OS by packaging the app and all its dependencies into a controlled environment. This prevents the application from modifying or interfering with the host system and ensures predictable, consistent behavior across environments. Unlike virtual machines, containers do not include a full OS installation; they share the host OS kernel but run in isolated user-space environments. This makes them lightweight, fast to deploy, and secure”perfect for developers testing new or potentially unstable applications. A Type 2 hypervisor hosts full virtual machines but does not inherently limit OS access. A VDI provides remote desktops but is not designed for controlled application testing. A quarantined PC is used for isolating infected or suspicious systems, not structured development testing. Thus, containers provide the controlled, restricted environment required.
Question # 7
A user cannot access the internet from a corporate laptop. All other employees can. The technician
reviews the laptop's configuration:
IP Address: 169.254.2.162
Which explains the reason the user cannot access the internet?
A. The subnet mask is misconfigured. B. The NIC is not using the latest driver. C. Network settings are only configured to IPv6. D. The DHCP server is unable to assign an address.
Answer: D Explanation: An IP address beginning with 169.254.x.x is an APIPA address (Automatic Private IP Addressing). CompTIA A+ explains that APIPA is assigned automatically by Windows when the NIC cannot reach a DHCP server. This indicates the laptop requested an IP lease but never received one. APIPA addresses allow only local subnet communication and cannot access the internet, because no default gateway, DNS, or valid subnet configuration is provided. Since all other employees can access the internet, the DHCP server is functioning generally, but it is not delivering an address to this specific laptop”possibly due to cable issues, Wi-Fi authentication failure, DHCP scope exhaustion, or NIC misconfiguration. A subnet mask misconfiguration (A) would still show a normal IP, not APIP A. IPv6-only configuration (C) would not produce a 169.254 address. An outdated NIC driver (B) could cause network instability but does not directly generate APIPA. Thus, the root cause is that the DHCP server did not assign an IP address.
Question # 8
Which cloud model provides hardware, storage, networking, and virtualization but requires
customers to manage the OS and applications?
A. SaaS B. PaaS C. IaaS D. XaaS
Answer: C Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the foundational computing components: virtualized hardware, storage, networking, and hypervisor resources. CompTIA A+ explains that customers using IaaS are responsible for installing and maintaining: The operating system Applications Patches, updates, and configurations This model gives organizations maximum flexibility because they can build custom server environments without purchasing physical hardware. In contrast: SaaS (A) provides fully managed applications”users do not manage OS or software. PaaS (B) provides a development platform and tools but does not allow OS management. XaaS (D) is a broad term meaning œanything as a service, not a specific model.
Thus, IaaS is the only model where OS-level control remains with the customer.
Question # 9
A human resources manager printed a sensitive termination document and forgot to retrieve it from
the printer. Which of the following prevents this situation?
A. Badging B. Duplex C. Printer share D. Wireless encryption
Answer: A Explanation: Secure badging”often used with œpull printing or œsecure print release ”requires users to authenticate at the printer before documents are printed. CompTIA A+ highlights this feature as critical for protecting sensitive data in corporate environments. With badge-based printing, jobs stay in a secure print queue until the authorized user physically scans their badge. This prevents confidential documents, like HR termination notices, from sitting unattended in the output tray. It also reduces print waste and ensures accountability for printed materials. Duplex printing (B) simply prints double-sided pages. Printer sharing (C) allows multiple users to use a printer but does not provide security. Wireless encryption (D) protects network traffic but does not address abandoned print jobs. Therefore, badging / secure print release is the correct protective measure.
Question # 10
A user ran out of USB ports on their laptop but wants to plug in more devices. What technology is
best?
A. Near-field communication B. Bluetooth C. USB receiver D. Port replicator
Answer: D Explanation: A port replicator expands the number and types of ports available to a laptop, including additional USB ports, video outputs, Ethernet, and more. CompTIA A+ identifies port replicators as solutions for users needing greater connectivity, especially when docking stations are unnecessary or unavailable. Port replicators connect through a single USB or proprietary connector and provide multiple expansion ports instantly. This resolves the issue of limited USB availability without requiring
hardware replacement.
NFC (A) is used for short-range communication, not peripheral connectivity. Bluetooth (B) only
supports wireless peripherals such as mice and headphones, not wired USB devices. A USB receiver
(C) adds wireless capability for one specific device, not general expansion.
Thus, the correct solution is a port replicator.
Question # 11
Which connector is used to uplink a new ISP cable modem to its wall jack?
A. F-type B. LC C. RJ45 D. Lightning
Answer: A Explanation: Cable modems supplied by ISPs connect to the coaxial wall outlet using an F-type connector. CompTIA A+ specifies that F-type connectors are threaded coaxial connectors used in broadband cable internet, cable TV, and some satellite systems. They attach to RG-6 or RG-59 coaxial cable and provide a secure, shielded connection to the cable providers infrastructure. The cable modem requires this coaxial uplink to receive downstream and upstream signals from the ISP before converting them into Ethernet on the LAN side. LC (B) is for fiber optic connectors, not coaxial. RJ45 (C) is an Ethernet connector and is used on the LAN side of the modem”not on the wall uplink. Lightning (D) is an Apple connector and irrelevant to networking hardware. Thus, the correct connector for the ISP cable modem uplink is F-type.
Question # 12
A user reports intermittent latency when accessing an internal website hosted at a remote office.
Which of the following should a technician do? (Select two)
A. Run ipconfig /all B. Run ping -t C. Run nslookup D. Examine the physical switchport E. Configure QoS F. Run tracert G. Call ISP
Answer: B, F Explanation:
When troubleshooting intermittent latency to a remote internal resource, CompTIA A+ recommends
using tools that help identify where latency occurs and whether it is consistent or fluctuating over
time. The best tools for this scenario are ping -t and tracert.
Ping -t (B) sends continuous ICMP echo requests, allowing the technician to observe packet loss,
fluctuating response times, or timeouts. This helps identify intermittent connectivity problems that
occur at specific times, such as bandwidth congestion, routing instability, or wireless interference.
Tracert (F) maps each hop between the local workstation and the remote office. If latency spikes
occur only after a particular hop”such as a VPN tunnel, MPLS gateway, or inter-office router”that
device becomes the suspected bottleneck. This makes tracert essential for isolating WAN-related
slowdowns.
Ipconfig /all (A) only provides local configuration and does not diagnose latency. Nslookup (C) is for
DNS testing”not latency to a specific internal host. Examining switchports (D) helps with local issues
but not remote latency. QoS (E) is a solution, not a troubleshooting step. Calling ISP (G) may be
premature unless testing confirms ISP-related issues.
Thus, ping -t and tracert are the correct diagnostic tools.
Question # 13
A customer has bare-metal servers running Windows, Linux, and Unix. They want consolidation while
maintaining isolation and compatibility. What should the technician recommend?
A. IaaS B. Containers C. Type 2 hypervisor D. VDI
Answer: A Explanation: The customer wants to consolidate multiple physical servers running different operating systems, including Windows, Linux, and Unix, while maintaining strong isolation between systems. CompTIA A+ identifies Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) as the best model for hosting fully isolated virtual machines in a cloud environment, allowing each OS to run independently on its own virtual hardware. IaaS provides virtualized computing resources”CPU, RAM, networking, and storage”while allowing the customer full control over the OS and application layer. This means Windows, Linux, and Unix VMs can coexist without compatibility concerns because each VM runs its native OS without modification. Containers (B) are unsuitable because they share the host OS kernel, meaning they cannot run different OS families. A Type 2 hypervisor (C) is workstation-based and not designed for enterprise server consolidation. VDI (D) provides user desktops, not server workload consolidation. Thus, IaaS is the correct solution for compatibility, isolation, and consolidation across multiple OS
types.
Question # 14
Which RAID type offers double parity?
A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6
Answer: D Explanation: CompTIA A+ teaches that RAID 6 is the RAID level that uses double parity, allowing the array to survive the failure of two drives simultaneously. RAID 6 stripes data across all disks like RAID 5 but stores two independent sets of parity information, making it far more fault-tolerant. RAID 0 has no parity and provides only performance. RAID 1 mirrors data but uses no parity. RAID 5 uses single parity and can tolerate only one disk failure. Because the question explicitly asks for double parity, only RAID 6 is correct.
Question # 15
A user reports cursor issues on a company laptop. Technician finds a bulge under the trackpad. Which
component should be replaced first?
A. Motherboard B. Heat sink C. Battery D. Trackpad
Answer: C Explanation: A physical bulge under the trackpad is a classic CompTIA-identified symptom of a swollen lithium-ion battery. As batteries degrade, internal gas buildup expands the casing, pushing upward on the laptop chassis”often distorting the trackpad, keyboard, or bottom shell. This can cause cursor issues, clicking problems, and safety hazards. Replacing the battery first is essential because swollen batteries can rupture, leak, or ignite. Only after the battery is removed and replaced should the technician evaluate whether the trackpad suffered permanent damage. Replacing the trackpad (D) without addressing the battery fails to correct the root cause. The motherboard (A) and heat sink (B) are unrelated to the physical bulge.
Thus, the correct first step is replacing the battery.
