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Two team members have a minor disagreement on how a task should be performed. The project manager plans to meet with the team members to discuss the matter. Which of the following techniques should the project manager use to emphasize the areas of agreement and downplay the opposing views?
A. Compromising B. Forcing C. Smoothing D. Collaborating
Answer: C
Explanation:
Smoothing is a conflict resolution technique where the project manager emphasizes areas of
agreement and downplays the areas of difference. By focusing on common ground and minimizing
the importance of the conflicting points, the project manager aims to reduce the tension and
encourage cooperation among team members. This approach is often used for minor disagreements
where maintaining harmony is more important than resolving the conflict itself.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, particularly the sections on conflict resolution techniques
and team management strategies.
Question # 2
A demo presentation for a global project was not as successful as expected because the development team misinterpreted which features needed to be incorporated. Which of the following has the project manager identified?
A. Technological factors B. Poor sample data C. Language barriers D. Scope creep
Answer: C
Explanation:
Language barriers can lead to misunderstandings within a global project team, causing
misinterpretations of project requirements or features. In this case, the development team
misinterpreted which features needed to be incorporated into the demo presentation due to
communication issues, likely stemming from language differences. This highlights the importance of
clear communication and understanding in a diverse project team.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, focusing on sections related to communication
management and international project challenges.
Question # 3
A global shipping slowdown is causing critical raw materials needed for manufacturing to be delivered late. As a result, a project's production run will be delayed from the beginning. Which of the following dependencies is most likely happening?
A. Finish-to-start B. Start-to-start C. Finish-to-finish D. Start-to-finish
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Finish-to-Start dependency implies that a subsequent activity cannot start until a previous one
finishes. In this scenario, the manufacturing process (subsequent activity) cannot begin until the
critical raw materials (previous activity) have been delivered. This type of dependency is the most
common in project schedules and is likely being affected by the global shipping slowdown, causing
delays in the start of the project's production run.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, especially the chapters on project scheduling and
dependency types.
Question # 4
A project manager is in the process of evaluating the probability and impact of a risk by assigning numbers such as a monetary value. Which of the following is the project manager using?
A. Monte Carlo simulation B. Root cause analysis C. Quantitative risk analysis D. Risk response analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis involves numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall
project objectives. It often includes assigning monetary values to risks to understand their impact in
financial terms, helping in prioritizing risks based on their potential cost or impact on the project.
This contrasts with qualitative risk analysis, which assesses risks based on their probability and
impact but does not assign numerical values.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, specifically the sections covering risk management
processes and techniques
Question # 5
A business analyst has gathered information directly from the client and is currently working with the project manager to identify what to include in the document in order to finish it. Which of the following processes should the project manager do next?
A. Validate the scope. B. Create the work breakdown structure. C. Define the scope. D. Collect the requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is the process of gathering information directly from the client and other stakeholders to define
what needs to be done in order to deliver the project outcomes. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study
Guide1, Chapter 9: Scope Management
According to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, scope management is the process of defining,
validating, and controlling the project scope throughout the project life cycle. Scope management
involves identifying and documenting the project requirements, creating a work breakdown structure
(WBS), and managing changes to the scope
Question # 6
Two team members have a minor disagreement on how a task should be performed. The project manager plans to meet with the team members to discuss the matter. Which of the following techniques should the project manager use to emphasize the areas of agreement and downplay the opposing views?
A. Compromising B. Forcing C. Smoothing D. Collaborating
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is a technique that involves acknowledging both sides of an argument, finding common ground,
and suggesting a compromise that satisfies both parties. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study
According to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, conflict resolution is the process of managing and
resolving disagreements or disputes among project team members or stakeholders. Conflict
resolution techniques are the methods or strategies that the project manager can use to facilitate
constructive communication and collaboration among the parties involved in a conflict situation.
Question # 7
An existing application that is highly utilized by clients is moving to a new release. Which of the following environments contains this application?
A. Development B. Production C. Testing D. QA
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is where an existing application that is highly utilized by clients is moving to a new release, as it
involves deploying and operating it in a live environment. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study
Guide1, Chapter 4: Project Environments
Question # 8
Which of the following activities are important parts of the closing phase? (Select two).
A. Releasing resources B. Locking risks C. Updating stakeholder register D. Closing contracts E. Completing the work breakdown structure F. Negotiating the next project
Answer: AB
Explanation:
These are two of the key activities in the closing phase, as they involve finalizing the use of resources
and resolving any remaining risks that may affect the project performance or quality. Reference =
CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, Chapter 12: Closing Phase Activities
Question # 9
Which of the following is a consideration when determining a project's ESG factors?
A. Project management methodology B. IT infrastructure security C. Proper accounting practices D. Corporate values compliance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Corporate values compliance is a consideration when determining a projects ESG factors, because it
reflects how a project aligns with the ethical standards and social responsibility of the organization.
Corporate values compliance can help to enhance the reputation, trust, and loyalty of the
organization among its stakeholders, as well as to avoid legal or regulatory issues that may arise from
violating the values. Corporate values compliance can also influence the project scope, objectives,
deliverables, and stakeholders, as well as the project management methodology, processes, and
The other options are not directly related to ESG factors. Project management methodology is the
approach or framework that guides how a project is planned, executed, monitored, and controlled. IT
infrastructure security is the protection of the hardware, software, network, and data components of
a project from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Proper accounting practices
are the rules and standards that govern how financial transactions and statements are recorded,
reported, and audited for a project. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd
Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; What Is Environmental, Social, and Governance
(ESG) Investing
Question # 10
A project team needs a tool to store information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. The information should be stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders and will provide search functionality. Which of the following tools should be used?
A. Secure folder B. Real-time, multiauthoring editing software C. Digital whiteboard D. Wiki knowledge base
Answer: D
Explanation:
A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share
information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in
a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge
base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need
quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project
requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices.
A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and
folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all
stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge
base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows
the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time,
multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and
may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki
knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project
team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for
storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki
Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition,
Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive
teams3
Question # 11
Government projects require that personnel submit to background screenings for certain clearance requirements. Which of the following best describes this process?
A. Data security B. Operational security C. Physical security D. Digital security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Operational security is the process of identifying, protecting, and controlling sensitive information
and activities from unauthorized access or disclosure. Operational security includes background
screenings for personnel who need to access classified or restricted information or resources, as well
as implementing policies and procedures to prevent leaks, breaches, or espionage. Operational
security is essential for government projects that involve national security, defense, intelligence, or
law enforcement.
Operational security is different from data security, which is the process of safeguarding data from
unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Data security includes encryption,
authentication, authorization, backup, and recovery of data. Operational security is also different
from physical security, which is the process of securing physical assets, such as equipment, data, or
personnel, from unauthorized access or damage. Physical security includes locks, alarms, cameras,
guards, and fences. Operational security is also different from digital security, which is the process of
protecting digital devices, networks, and systems from cyberattacks, malware, or hacking. Digital
security includes firewalls, antivirus, VPN, and passwords. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study
Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management2; What is Operational Security (OPSEC)?3
Question # 12
A developer focused on a single story during an entire sprint. The story was underestimated and, therefore, was not completed. Which of the following steps should the Scrum team take next?
A. Assign more resources to complete similar stories in the future. B. Break the stories into workable items that can be completed within one sprint. C. Extend the sprint duration when required with the approval of the product owner. D. Release the current progress into production and carry over the rest of the code for the next sprint.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Scrum team should break the stories into workable items that can be completed within one
sprint, which is a time-boxed period of 7 to 30 days, during which the team delivers a potentially
releasable product increment. Breaking the stories into smaller and more manageable items can
help the team to estimate them more accurately, plan them more effectively, and deliver them more
reliably. Breaking the stories also aligns with the agile principle of delivering working software
frequently and satisfying the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
The other options are not the best steps for the Scrum team to take next. Assigning more resources
to complete similar stories in the future may not solve the problem of underestimation, and may
introduce additional complexity and communication overhead. Extending the sprint duration when
required with the approval of the product owner may compromise the consistency and predictability
of the Scrum process, and may delay the feedback and validation from the stakeholders. Releasing
the current progress into production and carrying over the rest of the code for the next sprint may
result in an incomplete or unstable product increment, and may violate the definition of done, which
is a shared understanding of the quality criteria that the product increment must meet. Reference =
PRINCE2 Processes - 7 Processes Of PRINCE2 Explained3; Initiating a Project Process “ This process is
the procedure which defines the product quality, Project Product, project timeline, costs, the
commitment of resources, risk analysis, and assembles the Project Initiation Documentation (PID)4
Question # 14
While working with a contractor, the project manager identified a communication conflict. The contractor did not agree that there was an issue. Which of the following should the project manager and contractor review?
A. Scope of work B. Request for proposal C. Vendor rules of engagement D. Project schedule
Answer: C
Explanation:
The project manager and contractor should review the vendor rules of engagement, which are the
guidelines and expectations for the communication and interaction between the project team and
the contractor. The vendor rules of engagement can help to prevent or resolve communication
conflicts by clarifying the roles and responsibilities, the frequency and mode of communication, the
escalation process, the feedback mechanism, and the performance evaluation criteria of the
contractor. The vendor rules of engagement are usually part of the contract or the procurement
management plan.
The vendor rules of engagement are different from the scope of work, which is the document that
describes the work to be performed, the deliverables to be provided, and the acceptance criteria to
be met by the contractor. The vendor rules of engagement are also different from the request for
proposal, which is the document that solicits proposals from potential contractors by specifying the
project requirements, evaluation criteria, and contract terms. The vendor rules of engagement are
also different from the project schedule, which is the tool that displays the planned start and finish
dates, durations, dependencies, and resources of the project activities and tasks. Reference =
A developer recommends modifying an existing portion of code that is not part of the scope and is causing low performance on the current solution. Which of the following actions should the project manager most likely take?
A. Ask a developer to create a change request. B. Do nothing because recommendation is scope creep. C. Ask a developer to implement the recommendation. D. Communicate the change status.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project manager should ask the developer to create a change request, which is a formal
document that describes the proposed change, its benefits, costs, risks, and impacts on the project
scope, schedule, budget, and quality. A change request is the first step in the change control process,
which involves evaluating, approving, or rejecting changes to the project baselines. The project
manager should not do nothing, because ignoring the recommendation could result in poor
performance and customer dissatisfaction. The project manager should not ask the developer to
implement the recommendation without following the change control process, because that could
cause scope creep, which is the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope without proper
authorization or adjustment of the project resources and objectives. The project manager should not
communicate the change status before the change request is submitted and approved, because that
could create confusion and false expectations among the project stakeholders. Reference = CompTIA
